Multiple-choice questions for general practitioner (GP) Doctor v1.0

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Exam contains 252 questions

A 10-year-old child has got progressive bilateral hearing loss. He has started to increase the TV volume. All other is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Wax
  • B. Bilateral OM with effusion
  • C. Foreign body
  • D. Meningitis due to meningococcus


Answer : B

A 27-year-old lady after C-section developed epigastric pain after 8h.
What is the appropriate investigations?

  • A. Liver enzyme
  • B. Liver biopsy
  • C. ABG
  • D. Coagulation


Answer : A

Explanation:
Epigastric pain is a warning sign of HELLP syndrome. So to rule out HELLP syndrome should be done.

Healthy parents have 2 children, a child with Cystic fibrosis and a healthy child. They want to have another are the chances of that child being a carrier?

  • A. 1:2
  • B. 1:4
  • C. 1:8
  • D. 1:16
  • E. 2:3


Answer : A

Explanation:
As the parents have a child with cystic fibrosis and they are healthy both of them are carrier. autosomal recessive disease where if both parents are carrier mode of inheritance is as follows: Chance of being child 1:4, Chance of being diseased 1:4 and chance of being carrier 1:2.

A 30-year-old female has chronic diarrhea, mouth ulcers and skin tags. She complains of visual problems, low morning stiffness. Inv: ESR & CRP=raised,
Hgb=10mg/dl.
What is the most probable diagnosis?

  • A. SLE
  • B. Seronegative arthritis
  • C. Gout
  • D. Reactive Arthritis


Answer : B

Explanation:
Chronic diarrhea, mouth ulcers and skin tags are features of IBD. There is a w association between IBD and seronegative arthritis (particularly AS). Here low back pain, visual problem, morn raised ESR and CRP, low hemoglobin indicates the diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. 5days later he presents with flank pain, hem urea levels. A diagnosis of renal vein thrombosis is made.
What is the most likely cause for renal vein thrombo?

  • A. Loss of anithrombin III
  • B. Stasis
  • C. Protein C deficiency
  • D. High estrogen levels
  • E. Vasculitis


Answer : A

A 33 yearג€™s man has a temp-38.5C, cough and chest pain on the right side on inspiration. He also has puru.
What is the most likely organism to cause pneumonia in this patient?

  • A. PCP cold agglutinins
  • B. AFB
  • C. Gram ג€"ve doplicoccic
  • D. Gram +ve doplococcic
  • E. Coagulase +ve cocci


Answer : C

Explanation:
It is a case of community acquired pneumonia caused by streptococcus pneumonia.

A 54-year-old patient wakes up with right sided weakness. His current medication is bendroflumethiazide for
BP=160/90mmHg. CT shows left cerebral infarct.
What is the most appropriate treatment?

  • A. Alteplase
  • B. Aspirin
  • C. Simvastatin
  • D. Dipyridamole
  • E. Clopidogrel


Answer : A

A 45-year-old man has developed an annular rash with a scaly edge on his thigh. The rash has been spreading. He has some general aches and pains.
What is the single most useful investigation?

  • A. ANA
  • B. Skin scrap for mycology
  • C. Skin swab for bacteria
  • D. Biopsy lesion
  • E. Lyme antibodies


Answer : E

Explanation -
Spreading annular rash suggests erythema migrans of lyme disease.

Drug of choice of generalized anxiety disorder is ______________.

  • A. Acetalopram
  • B. Bubropion
  • C. Buspirone
  • D. beta blocker


Answer : A

Explanation:
What is Citalopram an antidepressant in a group of drugs called selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Citalopram is used to treat depression. Treatment for Anxiety Disorders Many variables influence the selection of medication for individual patients. The following is general information regarding beginning treatment. Most common - sertraline (Zoloft), citalopram (Celexa), and escitalopram (Lexapro). These allow a low starting dose (12.5mg of Zoloft, 5mg of Celexa) and slow titration (anxiety patients are very vulnerable to initial activation and worsening of symptoms). Effective ranges: 50-200 mg of Zoloft, 20- 40 mg of Celexa, and 10-20 mg of Lexapro. We routinely utilize much higher doses than those previously listed to treat OCD. We rarely use benzodiazepines as first line drugs for these disorders and generally discourage as needed/rescue use. Benzodiazepines remain widely used drugs for panic and other anxiety disorders in both primary care and mental health settings. While they have clear value in some circumstances, we avoid them as first line treatments because they so powerfully reinforce the anxious patient's wish for a simple and quick way to avoid the distressing experience of his or her anxiety. Overcoming this desire to flee distressing circumstances or feelings is the bedrock of CBT and is absolutely critical to successful long-term outcomes. Benzodiazepines often make these efforts more difficult.

Fluoxetine half-life after acute administration is ______________________________

  • A. 1-4 days
  • B. 6-9 days


Answer : A

Explanation:
The relatively slow elimination of fluoxetine (elimination half-life of 1 to 3 days after acute administration and 4 to 6 days after chronic administration) and its active metabolite, nor fluoxetine (elimination half-life of 4 to 16 days after acute and chronic administration), leads to significant accumulation of these active species in chronic use. After 30 days of dosing at 40 mg/day, plasma concentrations of fluoxetine in the range of 91 to 302 ng/mL and nor fluoxetine in the range of 72 to 258 ng/mL have been observed. Plasma concentrations of fluoxetine were higher than those predicted by single dose studies, presumably because fluoxetine's metabolism is not proportional to dose. Nor fluoxetine, however, appears to have linear pharmacokinetics. Its mean terminal half-life after a single dose was 8.6 days and after multiple dosing was 9.3 days.

72-year-old lady is drowsy and her relatives want to take her home.
She has been prescribed diazepam 2.5m delivery route?

  • A. Per rectal
  • B. Intra Muscular
  • C. Subcutaneous
  • D. Oral
  • E. Intravenous


Answer : A

A 53-year-old lady presents with hot flash and night sweats. Her LMP was last year. She had Myocardial infarction.
What is the most appropriate management for her?

  • A. Raloxifene
  • B. COCP (Combined OCP)
  • C. Evening primrose
  • D. Clonidine
  • E. Estrogen


Answer : D

A 64-year-old man complains of increasing dyspnea and cough for the past 18months. He coughs up a Table mucopurulent sputum with occasional specks of blood.
What is the most likely underlying cause?

  • A. Acute bronchitis
  • B. Bronchiectasis
  • C. Chronic bronchitis
  • D. Lung cancer
  • E. Pneumonia


Answer : C

Explanation:
Chronic bronchitis. There may be specks of blood in sputum in both bronchiectasis, acute and chronic. Duration of disease is 18 months, so it is not acute bronchitis. Again only one tablespoonful sputum does not term copious sputum of bronchiectasis in which sputum will be much more in amount.

A 25-year-old girl saw a tragic RTA in which a young boy was killed. The night of the event she couldnג€™t sleep after she suddenly lost her vision. She was previously fine and there was no history of medical or psychologic
What is the diagnosis?

  • A. Dissociation
  • B. Generalize Anxiety disorder
  • C. Post-traumatic Stress disorder
  • D. Somatization
  • E. Conversion


Answer : E

Explanation:
Conversion reaction. Conversion reaction is sometimes applied to patients who present with neurol such as numbness, blindness, paralysis, or fits, which are not consistent with a well-established organic cause significant distress. It is thought that these symptoms arise in response to stressful situations affecting mental health

Best method to maintain air way in conscious multiple injury is _______________________.

  • A. Intubation
  • B. Oropharyngeal device
  • C. Nasopharyngeal device


Answer : C

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Exam contains 252 questions

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