Intel® Server Specialist Certification Exam v6.0

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Exam contains 222 questions
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A customer has had a Intel Server System SR1630BC server in use for six months, with a single processor installed. The customer now wants to add a second processor. Why is it important to run the frusdr update after installing the second processor in the system?
(Select TWO).

  • A. Without running the update, the server will not be able to monitor and issue alerts on any status changes or errors on the second processor
  • B. Without running the update, the server will not have the greatest efficient running speed with the combination of both processors
  • C. Without running the update, the server will not have the correct microcode for the second processor
  • D. Without running the update, the server will not be able to use the second processor
  • E. Without running the update, the server will not be able to monitor the second processors thermal levels


Answer : AE

Which of the following is the main difference between the Intel® Server Board
S3420GPLC, Intel® Server Board S3420GPLX, Intel® Server Board S3420GPRX and
Intel® Server Board S3420V server boards with regard to server management?

  • A. The Intel Server Board S3420GPRX can use any of its five onboard LAN ports for server management.
  • B. All skus, except the Intel Server Board 3420GPV come with a built-in remote management module.
  • C. All skus, except the Intel Server Board S3420GPLC come with a built-in remote management module.
  • D. The Intel Server Board S3420GPV does not have an iBMC and therefore does not support OOB management.


Answer : D

In which of the following scenarios, would an Intel® Server Specialist typically use the
‘Prepare for Transport’ option on an Intel® Modular Server? (Select TWO).

  • A. This should be used before inserting compute modules into another chassis.
  • B. This should be used before moving all hard drives in the system to another chassis.
  • C. This needs to be used before transporting the whole system to another location.
  • D. This should be used before removing a defective component and then replacing it with a new one.
  • E. This should be used before removing all hard drives and re-inserting them into the same chassis later.


Answer : B,E

Which of the following processors is used on the Intel® Server Board S3420GP?

  • A. Intel® Xeon® 3200 series
  • B. Intel® Xeon® 3400 series
  • C. Intel® Xeon® E3 series
  • D. Intel® Xeon® 5500 series


Answer : B

Which is the LARGEST capacity single UDIMM that is supported in the Intel Server Board
S3420GPV?

  • A. 2GB
  • B. 4GB
  • C. 8GB
  • D. 16GB


Answer : B

Which of the following is the method for using Instant Secure Erase with the Full Disk
Encryption Premium Feature Key?

  • A. A new encryption key is written
  • B. Zeros are written to all sectors of the disk drive
  • C. The on-board encryption key is overwritten
  • D. The disk-drive magnet poles are reversed


Answer : C

When enabling drive security in a RAID web console, with the Full Disk Encryption
Premium Feature Key, which of the following is optional?

  • A. The passphrase
  • B. Solid state disks
  • C. The security key identifier
  • D. The security key


Answer : A

Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of point-in-time snapshots that can be made with the Snapshot Premium Feature Key?

  • A. 4
  • B. 8
  • C. 12
  • D. 16


Answer : B

Which of the following is a requirement when enabling full disk encryption?

  • A. Self-encrypting disks
  • B. An expander backplane
  • C. Minimum of One Xeon® processor
  • D. Minimum of 16GB memory installed


Answer : A

Which of the following is the device that provides the cache when using SSD cache with
Fastpath Premium Feature Key?

  • A. System memory
  • B. A writable DVD-ROM
  • C. Solid state disks
  • D. RAID controller memory


Answer : C

Where are the ‘base volume snapshots’ kept?

  • A. A flash drive
  • B. A writable CD or DVD-ROM
  • C. RAID cache memory
  • D. The snapshot repository


Answer : D

Which of the following documents and tools would help determine the correct parts necessary to build an Intel based server? (Select TWO).

  • A. Product Change Notification (PCN)
  • B. Intel Server Configurator Tool (SCT)
  • C. Quick Start Guide
  • D. Configuration Guide
  • E. Technical Product Specification (TPS)


Answer : BD

Which of the following are the MAIN advantages of the Intel Modular Server? (Select
THREE).

  • A. Single ‘Virtual Presence’ remote management interface for all system components.
  • B. Lower 2-socket node density than traditional 1U, 2-socket servers.
  • C. Higher 2-socket node density than traditional 1U, 2-socket servers.
  • D. Integrated compute modules, storage and networking.
  • E. Diskless compute modules for higher reliability and greater flexibility.


Answer : A,D,E

Which of the following are key advantages of the Intel® Server System SR1695GPRX, compared to the Intel® Server System SR1630GP?

  • A. Redundant Power Supplies; four onboard Gigabit Ethernet ports, 8 x 2.5” HDDs
  • B. Support for optional SAS or a hardware RAID module; five onboard Gigabit Ethernet ports; redundant power supplies
  • C. Integrated solid state drive; redundant power supplies; short chassis depth
  • D. Support for optional Remote Management Module Lite; five onboard gigabit Ethernet ports


Answer : D

Which of the following are genuine Intel Premium Features that provide enhanced feature sets and/or performance to selected Intel Raid controllers? (Select TWO).

  • A. Intel® Raid Port Multiplexer
  • B. Intel® Raid Drive Encryption Management
  • C. Intel® Raid Performance Booster
  • D. Intel® Raid Rapid Recovery Snapshot
  • E. Intel® Raid SSD Acceleration


Answer : BD

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Exam contains 222 questions
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